Yes, but only if there is proof someone died from the drugs they trafficked

Such a stance would seem to imply that the drug dealer was solely responsible for the death of the individual who presumably bought and consumed the drugs under their own free will (although maybe there is a case to be made than an addict lacks free will in this decision making process, but let's put this aside for now). To say that the dealer killed the individual and as a result deserves to die seems absurd. Even ignoring the fact that the state ought not to have the right to determine whom it may let live and die, to say that drug dealing is tantamount to murder when those who take the drugs die is a massive reach.